On 26/08/2018 13:15, Michał Górny wrote: > I'm not aware of any major implications. However, I think that if we > provide for the distinction, the distinction should be used correctly. Makes sense. Note that this might also be an argument for _not_ providing such fine-grained distinction (unless there's corresponding value in it). If in doubt, at least my intuition is to err on the side of simplicity. I also like Rich's opinion on this, Paweł